Marriage Is Communal Consent
Short post today.
All that is needed to make illicit sex moral in this day and
age is to confirm both participants’ consent.
This seems to be the gold
standard in sexual ethics. However, a single sexual relation affects more than simply those who
physically partake in it, in particular it affects the families of those
associated with the participants, both those related by marriage and those
related by blood.
If a man has premarital sex:
·
He takes away from the experience of the man she
will get married to
If a woman has premarital sex:
·
Male members of her family will be angry
·
Threatens stability of household before she gets married and after she gets married and this negatively affects her kids and her own future prospects.
Take for example, the man who is cheated on, the father and
brother of the girlfriend, the man who eventually gets married to a woman who
had previous sexual encounters (premarital sex is rumored to lower the success
of her marriage); all of them are negatively affected by extramarital sex
simply because they care about it. Women are also affected too. If extramarital
sex is allowed and widespread, why would any man ever marry a woman? Actually, many men in the West are choosing to forgo marriage! Furthermore, a woman’s reputation with men is far more fragile than a man’s
reputation with women. This is the unfortunate reality of things.
If a sexual relation impacts the society as well as the individuals...
Could marriage then be, from
this perspective, simply communal consent?
With the rise of individualism, many have forgot this perspective.
If sex without participant’s consent is rape, what is sex
without communal consent? If the punishment for sex without individual consent is
capital punishment (at least here in Saudi Arabia), what is the punishment for
sex without communal consent?
I am obsessed with making religiously inspired laws reasonable
in a secular light. Although this is unnecessary for the religious, it is still
fun to ponder about regardless.
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